According to the WSJ today (Nick Timiraos, July 17, 2024), John Williams as President of the New York Fed and Vice Chair of the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) that decides US monetary policy, stated that the labor market’s current conditions (a slow, steady rise in the unemployment rate) and recent inflation rates are “getting us closer to a disinflationary trend that we’re looking for…These are positive signs. I would like to see more data to gain further confidence inflation is moving sustainably to our 2% goal.”
First of all, Williams is famous for his 2003 academic research paper that stated that the US economic growth rate was in a steady 60 year decline and that Zero market interest rates were justified for the indefinite future. [1] He repeated this mantra of low and ever-falling economic growth as recently as a 2017 journal article stating that this same thesis was true internationally amongst a host of other developed nations as well.[2] No growth forever was his theme and it was taken to justify indefinitely low to zero market interest rates even as inflation was positive, say around 2%. This meant negative real interest rates: a market rate of say zero minus an inflation rate of 2% gives a negative real interest rate (after inflation) of -2%. So Williams first justified Greenspan’s negative real rates after the 2001 terrorist attacks and recession, and again after the 2008 crash and right up to 2017. Williams is a PhD student of renown Professor John Taylor and both are leaders of the New Keynesian economic school of thought.
Yet in 2016, with Trump as President, and with him berating the Fed for financial repression, Yellen and then Powell raised interest rates until we finally had 11 months of positive real interest rates in 2018-2019, and a steadily rising economic growth rate. Output growth came in at 4% around that time. Clearly, ever-declining economic growth was a Keynesian Myth that proved false as soon as Trump got the Fed to deregulate capital markets by stopping the prohibition of a positive real interest rate. Trump jawboned the Fed into ending an effective prohibition on usury, that is earning a positive real interest rate in capital markets, and economic growth responded.
So Williams’s famous articles on the “secular decline” of the US and other countries was a blatant falsehood led by misleading data work combined with a standard New Keynesian (NK) model. On that, I have written at length to explain how Williams and coauthors twisted like a pretzel data with theory to tell a Larry Summers “secular stagnation” story, despite its obvious implausibility given the then-recent booming decades of the 1990s and 2000s.[3] You can look up Summers version on his blog.
Williams was wrong then. Williams is wrong now. And again it is to justify arbitrary Fed action. Williams is a professional acquaintance of mine and seemingly a genuinely wonderful person; incredibly decent and responsible. But marching to a tune of the Fed’s discretionary control over markets rather than letting laws of the US Congress, which regulates the Fed, dictate Fed actions.
Why is Williams wrong again? The Fed has no authority to set the inflation target by itself according to statutory law of the 1978 Full Employment and Balanced Growth Act signed by President Carter that set a 3% inflation target by 1983, and 0% from 1988 onwards. Those targets can only be changed, according to the statute, by the President or by Congress, and not by the Fed. Yet in 2012 the Fed issued a statement, which I have written about at length.[4] In January of 2012, they stated:
“The inflation rate over the longer run is primarily determined by monetary policy, and hence the Committee has the ability to specify a longer-run goal for inflation. The Committee judges that inflation at the rate of 2 percent, as measured by the annual change in the price index for personal consumption expenditures, is most consistent over the longer run with the Federal Reserve’s statutory mandate (Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System 2012).”
Fine; so they violated statutory law. Nobody but me seems to care. Although even Paul Volcker wrote in his last book shortly before his passing that a 2% inflation rate was not in any book that he knew of: [5]
“I puzzle at the rationale…A 2 percent target, or limit, was not in my textbook years ago. I know of no theoretical justification.”
However in the exact same 2012 statement the Fed stated that monetary policy will not consider labor markets, which also violates the 4% unemployment rate target that the same 1978 Act cited above set in law:
“The maximum level of employment is largely determined by nonmonetary factors that affect the structure and dynamics of the labor market. These factors may change over time and may not be directly measurable. Consequently, it would not be appropriate to specify a fixed goal for employment.”
Therefore, one could say that the Fed declared despite the 1978 Act that labor markets do not matter for Fed policy. Yet according to the WSJ, Williams implies that unemployment affects inflation. Williams is trying to keep interest rates high, despite what some on the FOMC would like, with an average real interest rate of about 2% for the last year, after 20 years of negative real interest rates that his New Keynesian models were used to justify. What model is Williams using now? That GDP growth cannot rise back up towards a sustained 2-3% that has been enjoyed in the US post-WWII period? No. Now, the secular stagnation NK theory that put Williams in the Fed drivers’ seat is past history and fully discredited by the facts of real GDP output growth being strong and resilient.
Instead, I guess Williams just likes to stick to his guns that no rates would be cut until September, even if real estate markets are crashing with distress as they are now.
From overly negative real interest rates based on NK theory to overly positive real rates based on no theory, I guess Williams’ Fed just likes to control market interest rates, just for the sake of control. Rather than letting markets determine real rates, the Fed seems to enjoy their newfound post-2008 ability to set market rates through the interest paid on bank reserves held at the Fed.
What is the Nobel prize (2004) accepted theory that determines market-based real interest rates: Real business cycle theory. During booms real rates rise to the 2-3% level in the 3-month Treasury market and during recessions these real rates fall down close to zero, but rarely ever are negative. Unless of course, the Fed sets by diktat market rates and drives them down to negative levels or keeps them at overly positive levels.
Why does the Fed do this? They were embarrassed by the high inflation episode we just experienced that they said was just going to be a blip, not an episode. It was a serious episode, in fact.
There are over $3 trillion in excess reserves sitting at the Fed and the Fed is terrified that banks will lend out this reserve money, over which the Fed has no control. Because, as the Fed knows, what causes inflation is not labor markets or oil prices or supply-chains; it is the growth rate of money supply that enters circulation that causes inflation.
The Fed cannot control the Frankenstein “ocean of reserves” that the Fed has induced to get non-FDIC insured banks to self-insure, to avoid another uninsured investment bank collapse as in 2008 that drove Fed reserves to negative levels: they ran out of money, a good joke for late night TV for economists.
The Fed does not want to lower interest rates because they do not know how much of the reserves will be lent out and cause higher inflation. There is no other possible reason unless they simply enjoy inflicting pain on the economy, or is it that they enjoy enrichening the investment banks holding the trillions of reserve dollars?
Renown professor John Cochrane wrote recently in the WSJ that the Fed’s ocean of reserves is good policy and paying interest on reserves is good policy. In other words, self-insurance by non-insured banks is better than government bank insurance policy that for example ended the Great Depression in March 1933 through the establishment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC, at first on a temporary basis, later permanent). Cochrane’s idea, and many other famous economists from Charles Goodhart to Thomas Hoenig, is that self-insurance is better than a good government bank insurance policy based on risk-based premiums as in private insurance markets and as in the FDIC scheme (Congress made the FDIC premiums risk-based by a 2006 Act). And this idea/argument is despite Bagehot’s (1873) famous treatise that relatively efficient bank insurance led England to be the center of global capital markets because the Bank of England pooled together private bank reserves and lent them out during bank runs as needed, so that less reserves were being held overall in the entire banking system as a result of the pooling. This is the opposite of self-insurance (as Bagehot described was the case for France at the time); it allowed more capital to circulate; and it made wealth accumulate more quickly.
The Fed in contrast cannot pool together the trillions in reserves held at the Fed because the Fed does not own any of those reserves. The Bank of England had reserves given to it willingly without any interest paid to them; the Bank could pool them to stem panics; and the Bank of England earned seigniorage as inflation tax revenue that financed its earnings. The Fed cannot pool the reserves; the Fed cannot use them to stem a bank panic; the Fed pays for banks to give it reserves; and the Fed no longer transfers its inflation tax revenue only to the US Treasury but instead since 2008 to private banks, arguably in violation of the Congressional Budget and Impoundment Control Act of 1974 and the Federal Credit Reform Act of 1990. All said, the Fed’s bank insurance scheme has turned Bagehot into Frankenstein.
But then what happens to such “good bank insurance policy” if it allows the Fed to control the exact level of real interest rates rather than letting markets do it? What happens to such good policy if it directs all of the US inflation tax seigniorage to private banks holding the reserves rather than to the US Treasury for revenue to finance Treasury spending? What happens to such good policy if it makes the Fed unable to control the inflation rate since they no longer control the rate of growth of money in circulation that determines the inflation rate?
[1] Laubach, T., & Williams, J. C. (2003). Measuring the natural rate of interest. Review of Economics and Statistics, 85(4), 1063–1070. https://doi.org/10.1162/003465303772815934
[2] Holston, K., Laubach, T., & Williams, J. C. (2017). Measuring the natural rate of interest: International trends and determinants. Journal of International Economics, 108(Suppl. 1), S59–S75. https://doi.org/10.1016/j.jinteco.2017.01.004
[3] “Lucas’s Methodological Divide in Inflation Theory: A Student’s Journey”, by M. Gillman, 2022, Journal of Economic Methodology, Volume: 29, Issue 1, January, pages 30 – 47. DOI:10.1080/1350178X.2021.2019818
[4] “The Welfare Cost of Inflation with Banking Time”, 2020, Max Gillman, BE Press Journal of Macroeconomics; Advances; De Gruyter, volume 20, Issue 1, January, pp. 1-20; DOI: 10.1515/bejm-2018-0059;
and Gillman, Max, The Spectre of Inflation, Agenda Publishing, UK, December 2022; Columbia University Press, US, Feb. 2023. https://www.agendapub.com/page/detail/the-spectre-of-price-inflation/?k=9781788212366; and https://cup.columbia.edu/book/the-spectre-of-price-inflation/9781788212373.
[5] Paul Volcker, Keeping at it: The Quest for Sound Money and Good Government (2018).